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An Easement to Yourself

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(@dougie)
Posts: 7889
Illustrious Member Registered
Topic starter
 

Several people have told me; you can't grant an easement to yourself. The reason being; you own the properties, why would you need to give yourself permission to use it?

I'm of the opinion; you are not granting an easement to yourself; parcel A is granting an easement to parcel B. They both just happen to be owned by the same entity.

What's your opinion?

TIA

Dougie

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 7:52 am
(@a-harris)
Posts: 8761
 

You can create an easement thru one of your properties to another property you own that describes the use of and purpose of and place restrictions of use and list any rights to others and other terms of use.

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 8:21 am
(@peter-lothian)
Posts: 1068
Noble Member Registered
 

I often see a "Declaration of Easements and Covenants" recorded for subdivisions prior to any lots being sold, so i say it depends on how you go about doing it.

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 8:35 am
(@mightymoe)
Posts: 9920
Illustrious Member Registered
 

Funny you should bring that up today: Yesterday I had an attorney tell me it's fine to write an easement across one of my client's land to grant an easement to himself.?ÿ

Not sure how it's going to work but the client is stopping by today to go over it.?ÿ

?ÿ

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 8:47 am
(@norman-oklahoma)
Posts: 7610
Illustrious Member Registered
 

"Doctrine of Merger".?ÿ

Mic drop....

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 9:01 am
(@duane-frymire)
Posts: 1924
 

Well, you can do anything you want.?ÿ But a court may not enforce it in the future against someone who claims they didn't know about it, and maybe not even against someone who did know about it.?ÿ Depends on what type of system you have in the area. One of the biggest problems is getting the transaction to show up in both chains of title in order to get protection under recording statutes.?ÿ The other problem is it is not a valid contract under normal rules of contract law (hence merger requires complete ownership of both parcels, no outstanding liens, mortgages, etc.).

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 10:23 am
(@peter-lothian)
Posts: 1068
Noble Member Registered
 

"Declaration of Easements and Covenants" - the easements become part of a valid contract when the first lot is sold, and its deed references the land as "...benefiting from, and subject to..." the declaration.

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 11:21 am
(@tickmagnet)
Posts: 177
Estimable Member Registered
 

I've called these?ÿ springing easements?ÿ ?ÿ ?ÿ ?ÿ ?ÿ sample below

?ÿ

THE CITY OF CINCINNATI (ƒ??CITYƒ?), AN OHIO MUNICIPAL CORPORATION, AS THE FEE OWNER OF THE REAL ESTATE DEPICTED ON THIS PLAT (THE ƒ??PROPERTYƒ?), HEREBY RESERVES AND CREATES FOR THE BENEFIT OF THE CITY (THE ƒ??GRANTEEƒ?), A PERMANENT CHANNEL EASEMENT TOGETHER WITH THE RIGHT OF ENTRY AND RE-ENTRY IN AND UPON THE LANDS SHOWN ON THIS PLAT, SAID EASEMENT TO BE AS SHOWN HEREON, FOR THE CONSTRUCTION, PERPETUAL MAINTENANCE, RECONSTRUCTION, REPAIR, AND OPERATION OF THE STORMWATER SEWER SYSTEM, INCLUDING THE SEWER AND SEWER APPURTENANCES OF THE CITY OF CINCINNATI, ITS SUCCESSORS OR ASSIGNS, SUCH EASEMENT TO TAKE EFFECT ONLY AT SUCH TIME AS THE CITY CONVEYS THE FEE INTEREST IN THE PROPERTY OR A PORTION OF THE PROPERTY AFFECTED THEREBY TO A THIRD PARTY (ƒ??PROPERTY OWNERƒ?). SAID EASEMENT SHALL RUN WITH THE LAND AND SHALL INURE TO THE BENEFIT OF THE CITY AND BE BINDING UPON PROPERTY OWNER AND ITS SUCCESSORS-IN-INTEREST WITH RESPECT TO THE PROPERTY.

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 12:46 pm
(@just-a-surveyor)
Posts: 1945
Famed Member Registered
 

Yep, seen it done often exactly as describe. Multiple properties owned by the same person.?ÿ However it can cause problems about who is entitled to use it so one has to be careful with the description and permissible usage.

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 12:58 pm
(@duane-frymire)
Posts: 1924
 

Yep, but if no lot is sold.... or....?ÿ?ÿ gets complicated.

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 1:52 pm
(@andy-j)
Posts: 3121
 

?ÿyou can't grant yourself rights you already have.?ÿ

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 2:12 pm
(@daniel-ralph)
Posts: 913
Prominent Member Registered
 

I agree with the Doctine of Merger being a cold bath on this one.

And in part the concept of Statute of Frauds in the State of Washington might preclude a conveyance where there is no monetary compensation.?ÿ

However, a corridor across ones property can be "declared" and likely be enforceable once a certain event, such as a conveyance, death, compensation etc. has occurred. But why would you want to do what the OP suggests in the first place unless you wanted to dance around the law??ÿ

Now, I am no lawyer so don't pick a fight with me but if you want to chat with one about this very topic, I can link you to her.?ÿ

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 3:50 pm
(@aliquot)
Posts: 2318
Noble Member Registered
 

Platted easements through lots owned by the same owner work becasue the deed says lot x of XXX plat. Lot x on the plat has an easment, so the easment is created by the deed.


?ÿ

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 5:38 pm
(@thebionicman)
Posts: 4434
Famed Member Customer
 

The clean way to do it is reserve an easement when you dispose of the property.

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 6:25 pm
(@clearcut)
Posts: 937
Noble Member Registered
 

It is statutorily prohibited in the great State of Cali.?ÿ

Sections 805 & 811 of the Civil Code.

 
Posted : 21/03/2019 7:49 pm
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