I have been looking at a plan that shows a division of lots along an ‘Ancient Way’ known as Hall’s Path. I read the earlier deeds to find the easterly boundary is “Near Hall’s Path”.
So I went to the other side of Hall’s Path only to find the westerly boundary is one rod west of Hall’s Path.
There is nothing else in the record that granted any land or rights for the first parcel to have a means to get to Hall’s Path.
So how did a surveyor divide lots with frontage when it is so clear there is no frontage along the way?
We can add to the mess. Two of the boundaries away from the road are based on a Boundary Line Agreement. The parties on the other side did not have full interest in their land when they executed the document. I know they don’t have full interest as I own a fractional interest (Thank you Great Great Grandpa Allen). If my lot was not a landlocked bit of woodland, I may actually be excited to solve the problem and take it to the Land Court.
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